FIST CERT 3 Test Questions & Answers

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FIST CERT 3 Test Questions & Answers During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB? a. Down 150 b... . Down 120 c. Down 100 d. Down 50 - ✔✔c. Down 100 During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second. What HOB correction do you send? a. Up 100 b. Up 50 c. No refinement d. Up 150 - ✔✔b. Up 50 True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception. a. True b. False - ✔✔b. False __________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities. a. Signaling smoke b. Obscuring smoke c. Screening smoke d. Signaling smoke - ✔✔c. Screening smoke ____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision. a. Deception smoke b. Obscuring smoke c. Screening smoke d. Masking smoke - ✔✔b. Obscuring smoke Use the quick smoke mission to obscure areas from ____ meters up to ____ meters wide. a. 600 to 1500 b. 150 to 500 c. 600 to 1000 d. 150 to 600 - ✔✔d. 150 to 600 True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, attitude, maneuver target direction, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire. a. True b. False - ✔✔a. True During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a ____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE. a. 100 b. 200 c. 400 d. 50 - ✔✔b. 200 Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally within _____ to ______ meters of friendly positions. a. 200 to 400 b. 200 to 600 c. 400 to 600 d. 100 to 400 - ✔✔a. 200 to 400 True / False: The observer adjusts only the center weapon onto the center grid of the FPF when adjusting for an automated FDC that uses muzzle velocity variations and special corrections. a. True b. False - ✔✔a. True True / False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target number followed by corrections. a. True b. False - ✔✔a. True A linear irregularly shaped target requires the observer to send target description, length, width, and ________ in the third transmission of the call for fire. a. Direction b. Elevation c. Attitude d. Radius - ✔✔c. Attitude Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils. a. 1 mil b. 10 mils c. 20 mils d. 100 mils - ✔✔d. 100 mils What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE? a. 18200 b. 37500 c. 22500 d. 21700 - ✔✔c. 22500 What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar? a. 3500 b. 3489 c. 3600 d. 3689 - ✔✔b. 3489 What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar? a. 5800 b. 4800 c. 4600 d. 5400 - ✔✔a. 5800 What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar? a. 5800 b. 7200 c. 7400 d. 6700 - ✔✔b. 7200 What is the max range of M982 Excalibur? a. 44,000 b. 24,500 c. 22,200 d. 37,500 - ✔✔d. 37,500 A _____ operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support. To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive, and synergistic, not simply deconflicted. a. JARN Joint Air Reconnaissance Network b. JAAT Joint Air Attack Team c. JAAF Joint Aviation Assault Force d. JAST Joint Air and Surface Team - ✔✔b. JAAT Joint Air Attack Team Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing BDA information. Minimum requirements include _______________________. a. Good effects, damage, and time b. Good bombs, no need for re-attack c. End of mission d. Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown - ✔✔d. Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown JTACs and FAC(A)s can use ________ to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations. a. LLDRs b. Digitally aided CAS c. Ground burst illumination d. JFOs - ✔✔d. JFOs What is line 8 of the JFO target brief? a. Mark type b. Location of nearest friendlies c. Target location d. Egress - ✔✔b. Location of nearest friendlies True / False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is not available the observer must state "I am not a JTAC" or "I am a JFO". a. True b. False - ✔✔a. True True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and the target prior to conducting an engagement. a. True b. False - ✔✔b. False True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship use the same call for fire format a. True b. False - ✔✔a. True How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during engagement? a. State "I am not a JTAC" b. State "cleared hot" c. State "check fire" d. State "at my command" - ✔✔d. State "at my command" True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire unless "at my command" or "danger close" has been stated. a. True b. False - ✔✔a. True If "danger close" has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else must be passed to the attacking aircraft? a. Grid to nearest friendlies b. Ground commanders risk assessment c. Ground commanders initials d. At my command - ✔✔c. Ground commanders initials What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs? a. F16 b. B-1B c. F/A-18 d. AC-130W - ✔✔d. AC-130W Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65, GBU, and GP bombs? a. B-52 b. F-16 c. F-15E d. F-35 - ✔✔b. F-16 True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, and AGM-176 Hellfire. a. True b. False - ✔✔b. False What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire? a. MQ-1C b. MQ-9 c. MQ-5B d. Predator - ✔✔b. MQ-9 What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position? a. Contact b. Spot c. Eyes on d. Visual - ✔✔d. Visual What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)? a. Visual b. Spot c. Contact d. Joy - ✔✔c. Contact What brevity term is sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position? a. Tally b. Contact c. Bogey d. Squirter - ✔✔a. Tally Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable. a. Capture b. Spot c. Contact d. Acquire - ✔✔b. Spot Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative a. Dead eye b. Blind c. No joy d. Terminated - ✔✔a. Dead eye Brevity: Mark / marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer. a. Snake b. Pulse c. Lasing d. Sparkle - ✔✔d. Sparkle Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target. a. Pulse b. Snake c. Sparkle d. Rope - ✔✔b. Snake Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the friendly and target end of the pointer, a ____________________ call may be made. a. Tally b. Match sparkle c. Cease sparkle d. Contact sparkle - ✔✔d. Contact sparkle Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor. a. Track b. Captured c. Spot d. Contact - ✔✔b. Captured Brevity: FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch. a. One away b. Remington c. Rifle d. Winchester - ✔✔c. Rifle Brevity: No ordnance remaining. a. Remington b. Winchester c. Rifle d. Browning - ✔✔b. Winchester ___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets. a. Fratricide b. Collateral damage c. Error probability d. Retrograde - ✔✔b. Collateral damage True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when danger close procedures apply. a. True b. False - ✔✔a. True The mission of the Field Artillery is to __________________ the enemy with integrated fires to enable maneuver commanders to dominate in unified land operations. a. Destroy, suppress, or neutralize b. Destroy, deter, or defeat c. Destroy, defeat, or disrupt d. Destroy, deny, or disrupt - ✔✔c. Destroy, defeat, or disrupt Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by ___________ in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities. a. Massing fire b. Placing indirect fire c. Denying enemy d. Converging fires - ✔✔a. Massing fire Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission. a. Defeat b. Deceive c. Delay d. Destroy - ✔✔b. Deceive Tactical mission task that occurs when an enemy force has temporarily or permanently lost the physical means or the will to fight. a. Defeat b. Deceive c. Delay d. Destroy - ✔✔a. Defeat Slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy or adversary to project forces or capabilities. a. Suppress b. Defeat c. Deceive d. Delay - ✔✔d. Delay [Show More]

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